MCQs in Oral Surgery

1) The most important barrier to the diffusion of local anaesthetic within the nerve is

a) epineurium  b) endoneurium  c) perilemma  d) none of the above

ANS: 

2)  The branch of the external carotid artery given at the level of the tip of the greater cornu of hyoid bone is

a) superior thyroid  b) lingual  c) facial  d) ascending pharyngeal

ANS:

3) In orthognathic surgery, which of the following jaw movements has the least chances of relapse.

a) superior repositioning of maxilla  b) mandibular advancement  c) inferior repositioning of maxilla  d) mandibular advancement with genioplasty.

ANS:

4) The muscle most commonly affected in myofascial pain dysfunction syndrome is

a) masseter  b) medial pterygoid  c) lateral pterygoid  d) temporalis

ANS:

5) Which of the following statements is not wrong?

a) The odontogenic keratocyst has the highest recurrence rate amongst the odontogenic cysts.

b) Carnoys solution may be used to prevent the chances of recurrence.

c) All of the above.

d) None of the above.

ANS:

Multiple Choice questions

1) The space that lies between the anterior and posterior bellies of digastric is

   a) Submandibular.              

   b) Sublingual.

   c) Canine space

   d) Buccinator space.

Ans. A 

2)  Osteomyelitis of maxilla is rare due to all of this except:

a)      Extensive blood supply to maxilla.

b)      Abundant medullary spaces

c)      Thick cortical plates

d)     Porous nature of membranous bone

Ans. C

3) The Al-kayat and Bramely approach to the TMJ is a modification of the

a)      Hemi-coronal approach.

b)      Preauricular approach.

c)      Retroauricular approach.

d)     Risdon’s approach.

Ans. B

4) Early movement of TMJ following surgery for TMJ ankylosis is

a)      Desirable

b)      Contra indicated

c)      Harmful

d)     Both band c.

Ans . A

5) All are advantages of marsupialization except

a)      Allows primary healing

b)      Allows eruption of teeth

c)      Reduces blood loss

d)     Alveolar ridge is preserved

Ans. A

Local Anaesthesia II

1). Most common complication of inferior alveolar nerve block is

a)      Trismus

b)      Facial palsy

c)      Haematoma

d)     None of the above

ANS:  A

2) Which of the following block anaesthesia procedure is most likely to result in hematoma

         a) mental nerve block

         b) infraorbital nerve block

         c)  inferior alveolar nerve block

         d) Posterior superior alveolar nerve block 

   ANS  d

3) Paresthesia of the lip results in

  

a)      numbness in the area

b)      hypersensitivity in the area

c)      tingling sensation in the area

d)     all of the above

ANS  d

4) Initial toxic reaction to xylocaine injection is

        a)  Twitching of the muscles

        b)   shivering

         c) Talkativeness of patient

         d)   sleepy feeling

ANS   d

5)      Trismus after inferior alveolar nerve block is most likely due to

a)      Hematoma formation

b)      Damage to medial pterigoid

c)      Injection into parotid gland

d)     Injury to mandibular nerve

ANS  b

6)      which of the following LA causes vasoconstriction without addition of vasoconstrictor

a)      Cocaine

b)      Lidocaine

c)      Procaine

d)     Bupivacaine

ANS    a

Local Anaesthesia

Local Anaesthesia

1). Adrenaline is added to local anesthetic agents because it

a)      Potentiate the action of all anesthetic agents

b)      Increases the rate of destruction of local anesthetic agent

c)      Decrease the rate  of absorption of local anaesthetic at injection site

d)     Prevents deterioration of anaesthetic solution

ANS: C

2). Amide type of local anaesthetic agents undergo biotransformation primarily in

a)      Kidney

b)      Liver

c)      Plasma

d)     No biotransformation

ANS: C

3). Toxic dose of lignocaine with adrenaline is

a)      5 mg/kg body wt

b)      10 mg/kg body wt

c)      15 mg/kg body wt

d)     20 mg/kg body wt

ANS: A

4). Of the following in which condition local anaesthesia is ineffective

a)      Edema

b)      Localized infection

c)      Hematoma

d)     Anemia

ANS B

5). All of the following areas become anaesthetized by inferior alveolarar nerve block except

a)      Lower incisors

b)      Lower third molars

c)      Buccal gingiva of mandibular second molars

d)     Mandibular 2^nd premolar

ANS C

6). Anterior palatine nerve is anaesthetized by anterior palatine nerve block , the subjective symptoms include

a)      Feeling of numbness of posterior palate

b)      Feeling of numbness in anterior part of palate near incisors

c)      Feelin of numbness of entire palate

d)     Little or no subjective symptoms

ANS: a

TUMOURS

TUMOURS

1). Lesion treated by marginal resection are

a)      Ameloblastoma

b)      CEOT

c)      Myxoma

d)     All of the above

ANS: D

2). Extraoral segmental resection is done through

a)      Hind’s approach

b)      Pre auricular incision

c)      Gille’s approach

d)     Popowich’s approach

ANS: A

3). ‘Eyes upturned to heaven gaze’ is a characteristic feature of _____ cherubism

a)      Grade I

b)      Grade II

c)      Grade III

d)     Both (a) and (b)

ANS: C

4). Which of the following is FD

a)      Mazabrand synd.

b)      Lichenstein synd.

c)      Both of above

d)     None of above

ANS: C

5). A safe margin of uninvolved bone is ___ for solid and multicystic lesions

a)      1 cm

b)      2 cm

c)      3 cm

d)     Not always necessary.

Ans: B

cysts

CYSTS

1). Which of the following is not a sign of gorlin’s syndrome

a)      Bifid ribs

b)      Hypertelorism

c)      Multiple tori

d)     Basal cell nevi

ANS: C

2). Cyst enlargement occurs due to

a)      Presence of low grade infection

b)      Collagenase activity

c)      Increased hyperosmolarity

d)     All of the above

ANS: D

3). Rx of OKC

a)      Pastsch I

b)      Partsch II

c)      Ennucleation

d)     Extraction of tooth

ANS: C

4). All are advantages of marsupialization except

a)      Allows primary healing

b)      Allows eruption of teeth

c)      Reduces blood loss

d)     Alveolar ridge is preserved

ANS: A

5). Follow up for okc for early detection of any recurrences should be done at least upto

a)      5 yrs

b)      1 yr

c)      8 yrs

d)     3 yrs

ANS: C

General Anaesthesia

General Anaesthesia

1). According to Mallampatir’s grading, which of the following presents maximum difficulty during intubation:

a)      Class I

b)      Class IV

c)      Class III

d)     Class V

ANS: B

2) All of the following are objectives of premedication except

a)      Amnesia

b)      Reduction of stomach acidity and volume

c)      Prophylaxis against allergies

d)     Hypnosis

ANS: D

3). N2O use should be avoided especially drring_____ trimester of pregnancy

a)      First

b)      Second

c)      Third

d)     All

ANS: A

4). All are the complications of dental anaesthesia except

a)      Hypoxia

b)      Cardiac dusarrythemias

c)      Angina pectoris

d)     Mouth breathing

ANS: C

5). ‘Finger sweep method is used for

a)      Unconscious patients

b)      Before inducing G A

c)      Mandibular # pt.

d)     None of the above

ANS: A

MIDDLE 3RD #

MIDDLE 3^RD #

1). Le fort IV fracture includes all except

a)      le fort I

b)      le fort II

c)      le fort III

d)     cranial base

ANS: A

2). Best view to detect’ Blow out fracture’ is

a)      P A Caldwell

b)      0 degree occipito mental

c)      Cephalometric

d)     P A Water’s

ANS:D

3). Of the following, which is the problem associated with zygomaticomaxillary complex fracture

a)      Cosmetic

b)      Neurological

c)      Ophthalmic

d)     All of the above

ANS: d

4). The most probable diagnosis in a pt who comes with circumorbital ecchymosis, subconjunctival hemorrhage at outer canthus and limitation of mandibular movement is-

a)      Mandibular #

b)      NOE #

c)      Zygomatic complex#

d)     Le fort II fracture

ANS: C

5). The most common direction of fislacement of middle 3^rd # is

a)      Downwards and sidewards

b)      Downwards and anteriosly

c)      Downwards and posteriorly.

d)     Up wards and anteriorly

ANS:C

INFECTION CONTROL

INFECTION CONTROL

1). Infection control means:

a)      Only prevention of spread of micro organisms.

b)      Killing of micro organisms

c)      Removal of organisms from objects and surfaces

d)     All of the above.

ANS: d

2). After taking impression, before sending them to laboratory

a)      They should be thoroughly rinsed under copious water

b)      Should be sent as it is

c)      Disinfected first by using1:10 chlorine for 30 secs

d)     1: 50 chlorine is used for 5 mins

ANS: c

3). Which one of the following is correctly matched

1. Liquid waste -> buried and covered with bleaching powder and lime
2. Solid waste->incineration
3. Lab and pathological waste-> deep burial

a)      (i) and (ii)

b)      (i) and (iii)

c)      Only (ii)

d)     All of the above

ANS: D

4). Burning of the waste in flame is

a)      Fumigation

b)      Dry heat

c)      Incineration

d)     Any of the above

ANS: C

5). Chemically latex gloves are

a)      Polyvinyl

b)      1-benzo-hexane

c)      Rubber

d)     poly isoprene

ANS D

STERILIZATION

STERILIZATION

1). Efficiency of sterilization can be tested by

a)      Litmus paper

b)      Spores of bacillus steorothermophilus

c)      By growing colonies of rod shaped bacteria

d)     None of the above

ANS: B

2). Difference between sterilization and disinfection is

a)      The former kills the spores along with micro organisms.

b)      The later kills the spores along with micro organisms.

c)      Both are same.

d)     Only difference is of temperature.

ANS :a

3). Sharp instruments are effectively sterilized by:-

a)      Autoclave

b)      Chemicals

c)      Dry heat

d)     Any method

ANS: C

4) Ethylene oxide gas sterilization is achieved by

a)      Alkylation of organisms

b)      Denaturation of nucleic acids by the micro organisms

c)      Both of above

d)     None of above

ANS: c

5).releasing time required in an autoclave is

a)      5 mins

b)      10 mins

c)      15 mins

d)     20 mins

ANS: D

Orthognathic surgery

ORTHOGNATHIC SURGERY

1). Intra oral modified sagittal split technique of osteotomy is carried out in

a)      Maxilla

b)      Ramus of the mandible

c)      Symphysis

d)     Angle of mandible

ANS: B pg no 265 malik

2). Anterior body osteotomy is carried out in

a)      Mandibular prognathism

b)      Class III malocclusion

c)      Both a and b

d)     None of the above

ANS: C pg no 267 malik

3). Augmentation genioplasty can be done by

a)      Sliding horizontal osteotomy of the symphysis region

b)      Using autogenous bone graft

c)      Using alloplastic material

d)     All of the above.

ANS: D pg no 270 malik

4). Augmentation genioplasty is done

a)      To reduce the symphysis region

b)      To correct the facial asymmetry

c)      To increase the projection of chin

d)     To increase facial height vertically

ANS: C pg no 270 malik

5). In reduction genioplasty, reduction of the symphysis can be achieved

a)      Only in antero posterior plane

b)      Only in vertical plane

c)      Both in anter posterior plane and vertical plane

d)     None of the above.

ANS C malik pg no 273

6). Straightening genioplasty procedure can be done in patients with

a)      Condylar hyperplasia

b)      TMJ ankylosis

c)      Both (a)and (b)

d)     None of the above

ANS: C pg no 273 malik

7). Indications of extra oral sub sigmoid vertical ramus osteotomy is

a)      Major setback of mandible >10 mm

b)      Asymmetric setback of the mandible

c)      Re operation

d)     All of the above

ANS: D pg no 273 malik

8). Indication for IVRO (intra oral vertical ramus osteotomy) is

a)      Mandibular deficiency or retrognathism

b)      Bimaxillary protrusion

c)      Mandibular setback procedure in mandibular excess

d)     None of the above.

ANS: C pg no 274 malik

9). In BSSO,

a)      Bone graft is used for mandibular advancement

b)      Bone graft is sometimes used

c)      Bone graft is not needed

d)     Bone graft is obligatory

ANS: C pg no 276 malik

10). First maxillary setback was performed by

a)      Wassmund

b)      Wunderer

c)      Cohn stock

d)     Schuchardt

ANS C pg no 279 malik

11). Bimaxillary protrusion can be corrected by anterior maxillary osteotomy and

a)      Anterior sub apical osteotomy

b)      Posterior subapical osteotomy

c)      Total subapical osteotomy

d)     Any of the above.

Ans A pg no 268 malik

Temporomandibular joint disorders

TMJ/MPDS

1). Untrue of myofunction dysfunction syndrome is

a)      Common in females.

b)      Patient in middle age are affected more commonly.

c)      Radiographically and histologically detectable changes present

d)     More in early hours of day.

ANS: C.

2). The Al-kayat and Bramely approach to the tmj is a modification of the

a)      Hemi-coronal approach.

b)      Preauricular approach.

c)      Retroauricular approach.

d)     Risdon’s approach.

ANS: B

3). Ankylosis of TMJ is best treated by

a)      Sclerosing solution.

b)      Actice mouth exercise

c)      Codylectomy

d)     Intra-articular injections of hydro cortisone.

ANS: C.

4). Of the following which is not the structural element of tmj?

a)      Joint cavities.

b)      Sigmoid notch

c)      Condyloid process

d)     Articular disc

ANS: B

5). Following clinical disease process afftects tmj directly.

a)      Ankylosis.

b)      Dislocation.

c)      Arthritis

d)     All of the above.

ANS: D

6). Most common disorder causing pain about the masticatory apparatus including the tmj is

a)      Trigeminal neuralgia.

b)      Degenerative arthritis

c)      Traumatic arthritis

d)     MPDS>

ANS: D

7). Most common cause of TMJ ankylosis

a)      Rheumatoid arthritis.

b)      Osteoarthritis

c)      Trauma

d)     Childhood disease.

ANS: C

8). Early movement of TMJ following surgery for tmj ankylosis

a)      Desirable

b)      Contra indicated

c)      Harmful

d)     Both band c.

 ANS: A

9). Infracranial view for TMJ is also called as

a)      Water’sview

b)      Zimmer’s view

c)      Mequeen view

d)     Lateral view.

ANS: C

10). Which of the following is a psycho physiologic disorder

a)      Marfan’s syndrome.

b)      MPDS

c)      Marie Strumpbell disease

d)     Treacher Collins syndrome.

ANS: b